Name: 
 

Fall Final - Environmental Science


Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
Which of the following would be considered a very high rate of annual exponential growth?
A.
5%
B.
3%
C.
2%
D.
1%
E.
0.5%
 

 2. 
If the world's population grew by 2% in 1998 and continued at that rate, how long would it take Earth's population to double?
A.
20 years
B.
25 years
C.
30 years
D.
35 years
E.
45 years
 

 3. 
Which of the following is not a renewable resource?
A.
groundwater
D.
oil
B.
trees in a forest
E.
crops
C.
fertile soil
 

 4. 
Pollution includes
A.
dumping detergents into streams, causing fish kills.
B.
spraying with DDT, lowering the eagle population.
C.
releasing gases from coal combustion, causing acid rain.
D.
allowing fertilizer runoff from cropland.
E.
All of these answers.
 

 5. 
The measurement of the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution is called
A.
ionization
B.
pH
C.
alkalinity
D.
acidity
E.
synergism
 

 6. 
Earth is essentially a closed system for
A.
matter.
D.
neither matter nor energy.
B.
energy.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
matter and energy.
 

 7. 
Our capability to measure pollutants in the environment has steadily increased over the decades. It is important for us to understand the meaning of our increased capabilities. We once measured in parts per million (ppm). We measured one drop in 1,000 liters. Now we can measure in parts per trillion (ppt), or one drop in
A.
1,000,000 liters.
D.
1,000,000,000 liters.
B.
10,000,000 liters.
E.
10,000,000,000 liters.
C.
100,000,000 liters.
 

 8. 
A group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area at the same time is called a
A.
species.
B.
population.
C.
community.
D.
genus.
E.
niche.
 

 9. 
A community of living organisms interacting with one another and the physical and chemical factors of their nonliving environment is called
A.
a species.
D.
a lithosphere.
B.
an ecosystem.
E.
a community.
C.
a population.
 

 10. 
All physical forms of water (solid, liquid, and gas) make up the
A.
atmosphere.
D.
hydrosphere.
B.
lithosphere.
E.
troposphere.
C.
biosphere.
 

 11. 
Energy
A.
recycles through the ecosystem.
B.
flows in only one direction.
C.
is used over and over again.
D.
tends to be concentrated by living organisms.
E.
flows in two directions.
 

 12. 
All of the following are abiotic factors except
A.
light.
B.
temperature.
C.
pH.
D.
bacteria.
E.
water.
 

 13. 
What are organisms that feed on plants called?
A.
detritus feeders
D.
herbivores
B.
omnivores
E.
decomposers
C.
carnivores
 

 14. 
Organisms that feed on both plants and animals are called
A.
detritus feeders.
D.
herbivores.
B.
omnivores.
E.
decomposers.
C.
carnivores.
 

 15. 
All of the following are consumers except
A.
herbivores.
D.
autotrophs.
B.
carnivores.
E.
decomposers.
C.
omnivores.
 

 16. 
All of the following live off remains or wastes of organisms except
A.
omnivores.
D.
detritivores.
B.
decomposers.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
scavengers.
 

 17. 
Complex feeding patterns for consumers in an ecosystem are called
A.
food webs.
D.
pyramids of energy.
B.
food chains.
E.
trophic chains.
C.
trophic levels.
 

 18. 
Which of the following would be considered a tertiary consumer?
A.
phytoplankton
D.
jellyfish
B.
zooplankton
E.
sea slugs
C.
osprey
 

 19. 
The pyramid which best explains why there are typically only four to five links in a food chain is the pyramid of
A.
energy.
B.
biomass.
C.
numbers.
D.
matter.
E.
productivity.
 

 20. 
Soil is a complex mixture of
A.
mineral nutrients.
D.
decaying organic matter.
B.
eroded rock.
E.
All of these answers.
C.
air and water.
 

 21. 
The surface litter, or organic, horizon is described by the letter
A.
A.
B.
B.
C.
C.
D.
O.
E.
D.
 

 22. 
The A-horizon of soil is commonly referred to as
A.
topsoil.
B.
surface litter.
C.
subsoil.
D.
parent rock.
E.
humus.
 

 23. 
Topsoil contains all of the following except
A.
plant roots.
D.
some inorganic minerals.
B.
humus.
E.
bacteria.
C.
freshly fallen leaves.
 

 24. 
Which of the following is not a particle size used to determine soil texture?
A.
silt
B.
loam
C.
clay
D.
sand
E.
gravel
 

 25. 
If you were a farmer, which type of soil would you choose for your crops?
A.
silt
B.
loam
C.
clay
D.
sand
E.
gravel
 

 26. 
Which of the soils would most likely become waterlogged?
A.
silt
B.
loam
C.
clay
D.
sand
E.
gravel
 

 27. 
Humans strongly affect the hydrologic cycle through all of the following except
A.
water withdrawal in heavily populated areas.
B.
clearing vegetation for agriculture.
C.
boiling water.
D.
paving roads and parking lots.
E.
creating housing developments.
 

 28. 
All of the following increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere except
A.
respiration.
D.
decomposition.
B.
photosynthesis.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
combustion.
 

 29. 
The most common gas in the atmosphere is
A.
nitrogen.
D.
hydrogen.
B.
carbon dioxide.
E.
helium.
C.
oxygen.
 

 30. 
Nodules containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria would be expected to occur on the roots of
A.
pine trees.
D.
grasses.
B.
roses.
E.
oak trees.
C.
legumes.
 

 31. 
Which of the following is not one of the common phosphorous reservoirs in the ecosystem?
A.
soil
D.
rocks
B.
organisms
E.
marine sediment
C.
atmosphere
 

 32. 
All of the following are elements involved in major biogeochemical cycles except
A.
nitrogen.
D.
oxygen.
B.
calcium.
E.
phosphorus.
C.
sulfur.
 

 33. 
Ecosystem services include
A.
provision of energy and food.
D.
All of these answers.
B.
detoxification of pollutants.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
population control of pests.
 

 34. 
Mutations can be caused by
A.
ultraviolet light.
D.
radioactivity.
B.
X rays.
E.
All of these answers.
C.
certain chemicals.
 

 35. 
Biologists estimate that over ____% of the species that have ever lived are now extinct.
A.
59
B.
69
C.
79
D.
89
E.
99
 

 36. 
The two most important factors determining the climate of an area are
A.
temperature and ocean currents.
B.
precipitation and light.
C.
temperature and precipitation.
D.
light and temperature.
E.
ocean currents and light.
 

 37. 
The biome most likely to be found on the top of a very tall mountain is the
A.
desert.
D.
temperate deciduous forest.
B.
tundra.
E.
savanna.
C.
grassland.
 

 38. 
If you were a National Geographic reporter assigned to cover large herds of grazing, hoofed animals, where would you most likely journey?
A.
arctic tundra
C.
deciduous forest
B.
tropical forest
D.
savanna
 

 39. 
Permafrost is characteristic of the
A.
tropical savanna.
C.
coniferous forest.
B.
arctic tundra.
D.
savanna.
 

 40. 
Arctic tundra is perhaps earth's most fragile biome because of
A.
low rate of decomposition.
D.
bitter cold.
B.
shallow soil.
E.
All of these answers.
C.
slow growth rate of plants.
 

 41. 
Humans affect grasslands by
A.
planting crops.
D.
All of these answers.
B.
grazing domestic herds.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
drilling wells for water.
 

 42. 
The primary limiting factor of the rain forest is
A.
water.
D.
light.
B.
soil nutrients.
E.
wind.
C.
temperature.
 

 43. 
Most of the nutrients in the tropical rain forests are found in the
A.
living organisms.
D.
thick atmosphere.
B.
large rivers.
E.
shallow soil.
C.
deep, rich soil.
 

 44. 
Trees with needlelike leaves that are kept year round are especially abundant in which biome?
A.
tundra
C.
coniferous forest
B.
tropical rain forest
D.
temperate deciduous forest
 

 45. 
Humans have effected coniferous forests by
A.
clear-cutting for lumber.
D.
All of these answers.
B.
hunting predators.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
large-scale mining.
 

 46. 
If you are walking through a forest dense with oak and hickory trees and thick with leaf litter underfoot, you would probably assume you are in a
A.
tundra
C.
coniferous forest
B.
tropical rain forest
D.
temperate deciduous forest
 

 47. 
Humans impact the world's forests by
A.
clearing them for agricultural purposes.
B.
driving off-road vehicles and causing erosion.
C.
polluting forest streams.
D.
building cities.
E.
All of the above.
 

 48. 
Estuaries exhibit
A.
constant temperature and salinity.
B.
constant temperature and changing salinity.
C.
changing temperature and constant salinity.
D.
changing temperature and salinity.
E.
constant temperature.
 

 49. 
Lakes that have few minerals and low productivity are referred to as
A.
autotrophic.
D.
mesotrophic.
B.
eutrophic.
E.
oligomesotrophic.
C.
oligotrophic.
 

 50. 
A biologist studying biodiversity would most likely conduct research at a(an) ____ lake.
A.
autotrophic.
D.
mesotrophic.
B.
eutrophic.
E.
oligomesotrophic
C.
oligotrophic.
 

 51. 
Species that normally live and thrive in a particular ecosystem are known as
A.
nonnative species.
D.
specialist species.
B.
native species.
E.
generalist species.
C.
keystone species.
 

 52. 
Species that serve as early warnings of environmental damage are called
A.
nonnative species.
D.
indicator species.
B.
native species.
E.
generalist species.
C.
specialist species.
 

 53. 
Species whose roles in an ecosystem are much more important than their abundance would suggest are called
A.
nonnative species.
D.
specialist species.
B.
native species.
E.
generalist species.
C.
keystone species.
 

 54. 
A relationship in which a member of one species obtains its nourishment by living on, in, or near a member of another species over an extended time is best labeled
A.
competition.
D.
parasitism.
B.
predation.
E.
commensalism.
C.
mutualism.
 

 55. 
A relationship in which one species benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed to any significant degree is best labeled
A.
competition.
D.
parasitism.
B.
predation.
E.
mutualism.
C.
commensalism.
 

 56. 
A relationship in which both species benefit is best labeled
A.
competition.
D.
parasitism.
B.
predation.
E.
commensalism.
C.
mutualism.
 

 57. 
Which of the following would exhibit primary succession?
A.
rock exposed by a retreating glacier
B.
an abandoned farm
C.
a forest that had been clear-cut
D.
newly flooded land to create a reservoir
E.
a forest that has been burned
 

 58. 
Which of the following would undergo secondary succession?
A.
cooled volcanic lava
B.
an abandoned parking lot
C.
a heavily polluted stream that has been cleaned up
D.
a bare rock outcrop
E.
a newly created shallow pond
 

 59. 
Ecologists would consider all of the following to be natural disturbances except
A.
droughts.
D.
fires.
B.
floods.
E.
frost.
C.
deforestation.
 

 60. 
Consequences of fire suppression may include
A.
buildup of large quantities of highly flammable undergrowth.
B.
the development of an entirely different ecosystem.
C.
the fires that do occur may be more severe than the ones suppressed.
D.
All of these answers.
E.
None of these answers.
 

 61. 
You are an ecologist studying the population dynamics of an ecosystem. You observe that resources are not evenly distributed. You predict the population dispersion pattern is
A.
uniform.
D.
dispersed.
B.
random.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
clumped.
 

 62. 
Carrying capacity refers to
A.
reproductive rate.
B.
interaction of natality and mortality.
C.
the maximum size of population the environment will support.
D.
the proportion of males to females.
E.
the intrinsic rate of increase.
 

 63. 
A population crash occurs when
A.
a population approaches its carrying capacity.
B.
environmental resistance comes into play gradually.
C.
resources are essentially unlimited.
D.
a population overshoots carrying capacity and environmental pressures cause effects.
E.
the population growth rate slows.
 

 64. 
Density-independent population controls include all of the following except
A.
drought.
B.
fire.
C.
resource competition.
D.
unfavorable chemical changes in the environment.
 

 65. 
An r-strategist generally
A.
reproduces late in life.
B.
is small and short-lived.
C.
gives much parental care to its offspring.
D.
survives to reproduce.
 

 66. 
K-strategists
A.
have high genetic diversity.
B.
are more responsive to environmental changes than r-strategists.
C.
exhibit fast rates of evolution.
D.
are generally less adaptable to change than r-strategists.
E.
reach reproductive age rapidly.
 

 67. 
Which of the following is an r-strategist?
A.
human
D.
saguaro cactus
B.
insect
E.
whale
C.
rhinoceros
 

 68. 
Which of the following best describes the survivorship curve you would expect to find for a mountain gorilla?
A.
late loss
D.
no loss
B.
constant loss
E.
None of these answers.
C.
early loss
 

 69. 
Which of the following best describes the survivorship curve you would expect to find for a fish?
A.
late loss
D.
no loss
B.
constant loss
E.
None of these answers.
C.
early loss
 

 70. 
The actual average replacement-level fertility for the whole world is slightly higher than
A.
1 child per couple.
D.
4 children per couple.
B.
2 children per couple.
E.
5 children per couple.
C.
3 children per couple.
 

 71. 
Rapidly growing countries have an age structure that
A.
forms an inverted pyramid.
B.
has a broad-based pyramid.
C.
shows little variation in population by age.
D.
has a large postreproductive population.
 

 72. 
Women tend to have fewer and healthier children when they
A.
live in societies in which their individual rights are protected.
B.
have access to paying jobs outside the home.
C.
have access to education.
D.
have access to birth control.
E.
All of these answers.
 

 73. 
The term undernutrition refers to people who
A.
eat less than the basic minimum number of daily calories.
B.
eat balanced meals.
C.
eat too much.
D.
suffer from poor food quality.
E.
eat too much protein.
 

 74. 
Anemia can be the result of a deficiency in
A.
cobalt.
B.
iodine.
C.
iron.
D.
calcium.
E.
oxygen.
 

 75. 
Elemental iodine
A.
is only useful as a disinfectant.
B.
is very poisonous.
C.
is found in grains like rice.
D.
deficiency can cause goiter which can lead to deafness.
E.
not found in living organisms.
 

 76. 
All of the following crops are commonly grown in plantation agriculture except
A.
corn.
D.
coffee.
B.
bananas.
E.
sugarcane.
C.
cacao.
 

 77. 
Industrialized agriculture requires large inputs of
A.
fossil fuels.
D.
pesticides.
B.
water.
E.
All of these answers.
C.
inorganic fertilizers.
 

 78. 
Agriculture can harm the land through
A.
soil erosion.
D.
All of these answers.
B.
salinization.
E.
None of these answers.
C.
reduction in diversity.
 

 79. 
Most soil erosion is caused by
A.
moving water.
D.
volcanoes.
B.
wind.
E.
excess heat.
C.
earthquakes.
 

 80. 
Contour farming involves
A.
converting a steep slope into a series of terraces.
B.
building a series of small dams.
C.
plowing at right angles to slopes.
D.
plowing straight down slope or straight up slope.
E.
None of these answers.
 

 81. 
Since 1950, the majority of the increase in food production is a result of the ____ revolution.
A.
red
D.
yellow
B.
blue
E.
purple
C.
green
 

 82. 
Which of the following about genetically-modified foods is true?
A.
it has been proven to be perfectly safe.
B.
they may reduce the need to apply large amounts of pesticides.
C.
there is considerable evidence that the cause environmental problems.
D.
there is no real interest in regulating them.
E.
All of these answers.
 

 83. 
Which of the following would be used to kill rats and mice?
A.
herbicides
D.
insecticides
B.
rodenticides
E.
nematocides
C.
fungicides
 

 84. 
Which of the following would be used to kill weeds?
A.
herbicides
D.
insecticides
B.
rodenticides
E.
nematocides
C.
fungicides
 

 85. 
According to pesticide proponents, pesticides
A.
work faster than alternate controls.
B.
save lives and money.
C.
kill insects that transmit diseases.
D.
increase food supplies and lower costs.
E.
All of these answers.
 

 86. 
The ideal pesticide
A.
would kill only the target pest.
B.
would be persistent.
C.
would allow the development of genetic resistance.
D.
would be of equal value to the damage the pest would have caused.
E.
would kill every plant it came into contact with.
 

 87. 
According to the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), no more than ____% of the insecticides applied to crops by aerial spraying reach the target pests.
A.
2
B.
10
C.
25
D.
50
E.
75
 

 88. 
A pheromone is
A.
a new form of chemical insecticide waiting approval by FIFRA.
B.
a strong herbicide.
C.
a species-specific chemical sex attractant.
D.
a bloodstream chemical that controls an organism's growth and development.
 

 89. 
Integrated pest management is a
A.
chemical program.
B.
ecological program.
C.
biological program.
D.
program that interrelates all of these answers.
E.
None of these answers.
 

 90. 
Malaria is spread by
A.
Anopheles mosquitoes.
D.
snails.
B.
flies.
E.
bacteria.
C.
worms.
 

 91. 
Hazardous chemicals include
A.
strong acids.
D.
strong bases.
B.
asphyxiants.
E.
All of these answers.
C.
allergens.
 

 92. 
Teratogens
A.
cause allergic reactions.
B.
cause birth defects.
C.
are harmful because they are irritating to skin or lungs.
D.
cause mutations.
 

 93. 
You have been studying a large lake ecosystem. You learn that PCBs have been dumped into the water. You predict that the most affected population would be the
A.
algae.
D.
zooplankton.
B.
small fish.
E.
phytoplankton.
C.
predatory birds.
 

 94. 
A person receiving background radiation from a low-level radioactive dump site for a lifetimes has experienced
A.
a chronic exposure.
D.
a subacute exposure.
B.
a subchronic exposure.
E.
a superacute exposure.
C.
an acute exposure.
 

 95. 
A person flying over the Chernobyl site two days after the explosion most probably experienced ____ to radioactive substances.
A.
a chronic exposure
D.
a subacute exposure
B.
a subchronic exposure
E.
a superacute exposure
C.
an acute exposure
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 

 96. 
Limiting factors directly influence the size of a population.
 

 97. 
All of the brown tree frogs and green tree frogs living in the same area would be part of the same population.
 

 98. 
Houseflies would probably adapt to an environmental change much quicker than a human.
 

 99. 
Survival of the fittest refers to those individuals that leave the most offspring.
 

 100. 
Species diversity is highest at the poles and decreases as we move towards the equator.
 



 
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