Spring Final - Biology

Name:

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Though plants, fungi, and prokaryotes all have cell walls, we classify them under different taxonomic groups. Which of the observations below comes closest to explaining the basis for placing these organisms in different taxa (categories)?

a.	Some closely resemble animals, which lack cell walls.
b.	Their cell walls are constructed from very different biochemicals.
c.	Some have cell walls only for support.
d.	Some have cell walls only for protection from herbivores.
e.	Some have cell walls only to control osmotic balance.

The most general and largest category in Linnaeus's system is

a.	the phylum.	b.	the kingdom.	c.	the genus.	d.	the species.

Where are you likely to find a photoautotroph?

a.	in your refrigerator	c.	in the human gut
b.	in the darkness of the ocean	d.	near the surfaces of lakes, streams, and oceans

What type of organisms can generate organic molecules and obtain energy from inorganic molecules like iron, sulfur, and hydrogen?

a.	chemoautotrophs	d.	homotrophs
b.	photoautotrophs	e.	organotrophs
c.	heterotrophs

The few bacteria that cause disease are called

a.	viruses.	b.	pathogens.	c.	endospores.	d.	antibiotics.

If all the bacteria on Earth suddenly disappeared, which of the following would be the most likely and most direct result?

a.	The number of organisms on Earth would decrease by 10-20%.
b.	Human populations would thrive in the absence of disease.
c.	There would be little change in Earth's ecosystems.
d.	The recycling of nutrients would be greatly reduced, at least initially.
e.	There would be no more pathogens on Earth.

The domain that contains unicellular organisms that live in extreme environments is

a.	Eubacteria.	b.	Eukarya.	c.	Archaea.	d.	Bacteria.

Which of the following statements about the domain of Archaea is false?

a.	Based on DNA analysis, archaea are probably more closely related to eukaryotes than they are to bacteria.
b.	Some archaea can reduce CO₂ to methane.
c.	Archaean cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan.
d.	Some archaea can inhabit solutions that are nearly 30% salt.
e.	Some archaea are adapted to waters with temperatures above the boiling point.

Which of the following statements is correct about gram-negative bacteria?

a.	Penicillins are the best antibiotics to use against them.
b.	They often possess an outer membrane containing toxic lipopolysaccharides.
c.	On a cell-to-cell basis, they possess more DNA than do the cells of higher organisms.
d.	Their cell walls are primarily composed of peptidoglycan.

10.

Which of the following is a way that bacteria cause disease?

a.	by the lysogenic cycle	c.	by conjugating
b.	by fixing nitrogen	d.	by releasing toxins

11.

According to the endosymbiont hypothesis, what cellular components originated from free-living bacterial cells?

a.	mitochondria and nucleus
b.	nuclei and ribosomes
c.	chloroplasts and ribosomes
d.	chloroplasts and mitochondria
e.	endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria

12.

Many physicians administer antibiotics to patients at the first sign of any disease symptoms. Why can this practice cause more problems for these patients, and for others not yet infected?

a.	The antibiotic administered may kill viruses that had been keeping the bacteria in check.
b.	Antibiotics may cause other side effects in patients.
c.	Overuse of antibiotics can select for antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
d.	Particular patients may be allergic to the antibiotic.
e.	Antibiotics may interfere with the ability to identify the bacteria present.

13.

Which form of bacterial cells are rod shaped?

a.	spirilla	b.	cocci	c.	vibrios	d.	bacilli	e.	rhodius

14.

Members of the Archaea differ from members of the Bacteria (or eubacteria) in that only the members of the Archaea have

a.	different lipids in their membranes.
b.	a nuclear membrane.
c.	enzymes to carry out respiration in their plasma membranes.
d.	a peptidoglycan cell wall.
e.	a variety of morphologies, including cocci and vibrios.

15.

Which of the following is the most common compound in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria?

a.	cellulose	d.	peptidoglycan
b.	lipopolysaccharide	e.	protein
c.	lignin

16.

Animals that are warm-blooded, have body hair, and produce milk for their young are grouped in the class

a.	Amphibia.	b.	Mammalia.	c.	Aves.	d.	Reptilia.

17.

Linnaeus recognized two kingdoms—

a.	bacteria and animals.	c.	plants and animals.
b.	plants and fungi.	d.	protists and animals.

18.

An analysis of derived characters is used to generate a

a.	family tree based on only external appearance.
b.	family tree based on only DNA structure.
c.	cladogram.
d.	traditional classification system.

19.

Which of the following is the correct order, from most external to most internal?

a.	cell wall, cell membrane, capsule	d.	capsule, cell membrane, cell wall
b.	cell wall, capsule, cell membrane	e.	capsule, cell wall, cell membrane
c.	cell membrane, cell wall, capsule

20.

In which of the following places are you most likely to find nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

a.	the atmosphere	c.	the roots of soybean plants
b.	lakes and streams	d.	a bag of nitrogen fertilizer

21.

If a bacterium regenerates from an endospore that does not have all of the plasmids contained in its parent cell, it will probably

a.	lack "contingency" functions.
b.	lack a cell wall.
c.	lack a chromosome.
d.	gain extra base pairs on its chromosome.
e.	be unable to survive in its normal environment.

22.

Which kingdom contains saprobes with cell walls of chitin?

a.	Protista.	b.	Fungi.	c.	Plantae.	d.	Animalia.

23.

All viruses have

a.	DNA and protein.	d.	protein and either RNA or DNA.
b.	RNA and protein.	e.	RNA and either DNA or protein.
c.	DNA and either RNA or protein.

24.

During a lytic infection, the host cell is

a.	destroyed.	c.	copied many times over.
b.	prepared for the lysogenic cycle.	d.	all of the above

25.

Viruses cause infection by

a.	producing toxins that harm the body.	c.	forming endospores in the body.
b.	reproducing independently inside the body.	d.	entering body cells and replicating.

26.

Endospores form

a.	when the environmental conditions are favorable.
b.	during binary fission.
c.	as a means of genetic recombination.
d.	in response to adverse conditions.
e.	to produce two offspring from every one parental cell.

27.

Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other surfaces?

a.	capsules and endospores	d.	fimbriae and plasmids
b.	capsules and fimbriae	e.	fimbriae and flagella
c.	endospores and fimbriae

28.

In viruses, the capsid

a.	is composed of DNA or RNA.
b.	destroys the viral DNA or RNA.
c.	is never present.
d.	consists of many genes.
e.	may be involved in attachment of the virus.

29.

On what principle does a molecular clock model depend?

a.	the accumulation of neutral mutations
b.	traits that are under great selection pressure
c.	the comparison of analogous segments of DNA
d.	phenotypes of organisms

30.

Which of the following are members of the kingdom Archaebacterium?

a.	methanogens.	b.	eubacteria.	c.	eukaryotes.	d.	E. coli.

31.

When treated with Gram stain, Gram-positive eubacteria appear

a.	purple.	b.	pink.	c.	yellow.	d.	orange.

32.

Foods can be preserved in many ways by slowing or preventing bacterial growth. Which of the following methods would not substantially inhibit bacterial growth?

a.	Refrigeration: Slows bacterial metabolism and growth.
b.	Closing previously opened containers: Prevents more bacteria from entering.
c.	Pickling: Creates a pH at which bacterial enzymes cannot function.
d.	Canning in heavy sugar syrup: Creates osmotic conditions that remove water from bacterial cells.
e.	Irradiation: Kills bacteria by mutating their DNA.

33.

There are often regional differences in a species'

a.	common name.	b.	scientific name.	c.	taxon.	d.	binomial nomenclature.

34.

What differentiates gram-positive bacteria from gram-negative bacteria?

a.	the presence of a nucleus	d.	the shape of the cells
b.	the presence of ribosomes	e.	the method of reproduction
c.	the composition of the cell wall

35.

How do binomial, or two-part, names compare with early scientific names?

a.	They are longer.	c.	They are completely descriptive.
b.	They are shorter.	d.	They are in English.

36.

In the old five kingdom classification scheme, the Kingdom Monera contained which two current kingdoms or domains?

a.	Archaea and Protista	d.	Bacteria and Archaea
b.	Plantae and Protista	e.	Archaea and Plantae
c.	Bacteria and Protista

37.

Unlike lytic viruses, lysogenic viruses do not

a.	inject their genetic material into the host cell.	c.	lyse the host cell right away.
b.	enter the lytic cycle.	d.	infect host cells.

38.

Bacteriophages infect

a.	other viruses.	c.	any available host cell.
b.	bacteria only.	d.	cells undergoing the lytic cycle.

39.

A genus is composed of a number of related

a.	kingdoms.	b.	phyla.	c.	orders.	d.	species.

40.

The baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to the same

a.	class.	b.	family.	c.	genus.	d.	species.

41.

What term is used to describe bacteria that can only live in the absence of oxygen?

a.	obligate aerobes	d.	facultative anaerobes
b.	obligate anaerobes	e.	methanogens
c.	oxyphiles

42.

Bacteria living in hot springs are a good source of

a.	antibiotics.	c.	nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
b.	heat-stable enzymes.	d.	Gram stains.

43.

Which of the following is not a kingdom in the Eucarya?

a.	Archaea	d.	Protista
b.	Plantae	e.	Animalia
c.	Fungi

44.

Mad cow disease is caused by an infectious protein, also known as a(n)

a.	endospore.	d.	prion.
b.	rickettsia.	e.	viroid.
c.	virion.

45.

The innate (nonspecific) immunity that protects a person digging in the garden from developing a microbial infection includes all of the following except

a.	lymphocytes.
b.	the skin.
c.	mucous membranes.
d.	acidic secretions.
e.	antimicrobial proteins (the complement).

46.

Which action below is affected by an antihistamine?

a.	blood vessel dilation
b.	phagocytosis of antigens
c.	MHC presentation by macrophages
d.	the secondary immune response

47.

Each indication below is a clinical characteristic of the inflammatory response except

a.	decreased temperature.	c.	redness.
b.	increased blood flow.	d.	pain.

48.

What are antigens?

a.	proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump
b.	proteins embedded in B cell membranes
c.	proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains
d.	foreign molecules that trigger the generation of antibodies
e.	proteins released during an inflammatory response

49.

If a newborn were accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus, what would most likely happen?

a.	His cells would lack MHC molecules on their surface.
b.	His immune system would not function.
c.	Genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur.
d.	His T cells would not mature properly.
e.	His B cells would be reduced in number.

Use the graph in the figure below to answer the following questions.

50.

When would you find antibodies being produced?

a.	between 3 and 7 days	d.	both B and C
b.	between 14 and 21 days	e.	both A and C
c.	between 28 and 35 days

51.

In which of the following situations will helper T cells be activated?

a.	when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell
b.	when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines
c.	when B cells respond to T-independent antigens
d.	in the bone marrow during the self tolerance test

52.

Which statement about antibodies is false?

a.	Plasma cells are responsible for the production of antibodies.
b.	Antibodies bind with foreign cells and lyse them.
c.	The structure of antibodies includes both a constant and a variable (changeable) region.
d.	Antibodies act as signals to blood complement proteins.

53.

These cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and destroy virally infected cells.

a.	cytotoxic T cells	c.	helper T cells	e.	B cells
b.	natural killer cells	d.	macrophages

54.

These cells have a function that is similar to the function of dendritic cells.

a.	cytotoxic T cells	c.	helper T cells	e.	B cells
b.	natural killer cells	d.	macrophages

55.

Which of the following is a pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic(killer) T cells?

a.	B cell contacts antigen helper T cell is activated plasma cell is activated
b.	body cell becomes infected with a bacterium bacterium is phagocytized antigen complex displayed on MHC cell surface activation of helper T cell
c.	Dendritic cells phagocytize bacterium B cells contact antigen cytokines released
d.	complement cells B cell contacts antigen helper T cell activated cytokines released
e.	cytotoxic T cells MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed cytokines released cell lysis

56.

Which cell type interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways?

a.	plasma cells	c.	natural killer cells	e.	helper T cells
b.	cytotoxic T cells	d.	CD8 cells

57.

When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by

a.	the shape of the antibody with at least two binding regions.
b.	disulfide bridges between the antigens.
c.	complement that makes the affected cells sticky.
d.	bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules.
e.	denaturation of the antibodies.

58.

Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an individual who has been bitten by a poisonous snake that has a fast-acting toxin?

a.	vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin
b.	injection of antibodies to the toxin
c.	injection of plasma cells
d.	injection of helper T cells

59.

Which choice could be used as an analogy to describe how HIV affects the body?

a.	bypassing a light switch so that electricity is constantly flowing to a light
b.	rebooting a computer after getting a program error message
c.	snipping the wires coming from a car battery so that no electricity flows to the car components
d.	an elevator stopping at the floor for which the button has been pushed
e.	changing the color of your house to match the color of your car

60.

Which of the following is an advantage of the nonspecific immune response over the specific immune response?

a.	It recognizes specific disease agents.
b.	It is more effective at resisting infections.
c.	It retains memory of previous infections.
d.	It forms the basis of immunization against infections an organism has yet to experience.
e.	It responds more rapidly to an initial infection.

61.

Autoimmune diseases are caused by the attack of

a.	virus infections on joints and nerves.
b.	virus or bacterial infections on cells of the immune system.
c.	the immune system on viral-infected cells.
d.	a person's own antibodies on his own immune cells.
e.	a person's own immune cells on his own tissues.

62.

Memory cells are ________ that function in _______.

a.	macrophages; removing the debris of an infection
b.	T cells; remembering self-antigen, thus protecting the body's cells
c.	T cells; determining which B cells will get activated during a second exposure to an antigen
d.	B cells; retaining the ability to make an antibody used to fight a previous infection
e.	B cells; remembering where to direct macrophages to fight a local infection

63.

Edward Jenner was able to protect people from contracting smallpox by injecting them with material from cowpox pustules because

a.	both smallpox and cowpox are caused by the same virus, which causes a less severe disease in cows.
b.	antibodies against cowpox virus antigens can bind to similar proteins on the coat of smallpox virus.
c.	the injected fluid activated the nonspecific immune response, guarding against any subsequent infection.
d.	the material from the pustule contained antibodies that the cow had produced to the viral coat proteins.
e.	the material from the pustules contained weakened smallpox virus.

64.

Histamines

a.	are produced by phagocytes to cause mucous production.
b.	are produced by mast cells to cause prostaglandin production.
c.	are produced by complement to attract phagocytes.
d.	are produced by mast cells to cause vasodilation.
e.	are produced by complement to cause vasoconstriction.

65.

Which occurs last in the stages of infection and recovery?

a.	inflammation	c.	antibody-mediated immune response
b.	attack by lysozymes in sweat and saliva	d.	production of mucous

66.

Which of the following is NOT a step in identifying the pathogen that causes a specific disease (Koch’s postulate)?

a.	The pathogen should be found in the body of a healthy organism.
b.	The pathogen should be isolated and grown in a pure culture.
c.	The purified pathogens should cause the same disease in a new host.
d.	The pathogen should be isolated from the second host.

67.

Which of the following is an example of a vector and the disease it spreads?

a.	tall grass and Lyme disease	c.	the Nile river and malaria
b.	the deer tick and Lyme disease	d.	insecticides and malaria

68.

One advantage of a fever is that it can slow down the

a.	activities of white blood cells.	c.	growth of pathogens.
b.	rate of chemical reactions.	d.	body's recovery from infection.

69.

The body's most important nonspecific defense is

a.	the skin.	c.	the inflammatory response.
b.	cell-mediated immunity.	d.	permanent immunity.

70.

Unlike passive immunity, in active immunity antibodies are produced by

a.	the mother of an infant.	c.	other animals.
b.	your own body.	d.	an autoimmune disease.

71.

When a person receives a vaccine, his or her body

a.	receives antibodies against a specific pathogen.
b.	creates plasma cells that can produce antibodies against the specific pathogen.
c.	creates antigens to fight the specific pathogen.
d.	immediately begins fighting the infection caused by the pathogens.

72.

An immune response is triggered by a(an)

a.	antibiotic.	b.	antibody.	c.	antigen.	d.	histamine.

73.

An example of an autoimmune disease is

a.	asthma.	c.	multiple sclerosis.
b.	allergies.	d.	strep throat.

74.

HIV weakens the immune system by killing

a.	antibodies.	b.	B cells.	c.	helper T cells.	d.	killer T cells.

75.

A benign tumor is one that

a.	is cancerous.
b.	has undergone metastasis.
c.	does not spread to other parts of the body.
d.	does not divide uncontrollably.

76.

Protists are alike in that all are

a.	multicellular.	c.	marine.	e.	eukaryotic.
b.	photosynthetic.	d.	nonparasitic.

77.

The current state of the revision of "protistan" taxonomy is an example of which feature of good scientific practice?

a.	the need to suspend judgment until enough evidence is available to make an informed decision
b.	the need to base hypothetical phylogenies solely on fossil evidence
c.	the need to be willing to change or drop one's hypotheses when the data warrant it
d.	the need to avoid sampling techniques that can introduce bias
e.	both A and C

You are given five test tubes, each containing an unknown protist, and your task is to read the description below and match these five protists to the correct test tube.

A.	Paramecium
B.	Navicula (diatom)
C.	Pfiesteria (dinoflagellate)
D.	Entamoeba
E.	Plasmodium

In test tube 1, you observe an organism feeding. Your sketch of the organism looks very similar to the figure below. When light, especially red and blue light, is shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles accumulate on the inside of test tubes 2 and 3. Chemical analysis of test tube 3 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of silica. Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans. Microscopic analysis of organisms in tubes 2, 4, and 5 reveals the presence of permanent, membrane-bounded sacs just under the plasma membrane. Microscopic analysis of the contents in tube 5 reveals the presence of one large (macro) nucleus and several small (micro) nuclei in each organism.

78.

Test tube 1 contains

a.	A	b.	B	c.	C	d.	D	e.	E

79.

Test tube 2 contains

a.	A	b.	B	c.	C	d.	D	e.	E

80.

Test tube 3 contains

a.	A	b.	B	c.	C	d.	D	e.	E

81.

Test tube 5 contains

a.	A	b.	B	c.	C	d.	D	e.	E

82.

Eukaryotic cells may have evolved from

a.	a symbiosis of several cells.	c.	chloroplasts that grew very large.
b.	mitochondria that grew very large.	d.	plants, animals, and fungi.

83.

Members of the phylum that contains amoebas, foraminifers, and heliozoans are

a.	sarcodines.	b.	ciliates.	c.	sporozoans.	d.	pseudopods.

84.

Which statement about malaria is true?

a.	Not all strains can be treated, and there is no completely effective vaccine.
b.	All strains can be treated with modern drugs, however there is no completely effective vaccine.
c.	All strains can be treated with modern drugs, and there is an effective vaccine.
d.	Malaria has been eradicated by control of the Anopheles mosquito.

85.

Algae have a range of colors because they

a.	make different kinds of light energy.	c.	have only chlorophyll a.
b.	have different accessory pigments.	d.	change color in seawater.

86.

The intricate, folded cell membrane of euglenas is a(an)

a.	pectin-based cell wall.	c.	eyespot.
b.	cell wall composed of silica.	d.	pellicle.

87.

Which of the statements is true about dinoflagellates?

a.	They contain bright yellow pigments.
b.	They can be both photosynthetic and heterotrophic.
c.	Many species are luminescent.
d.	They possess pillbox-shaped cell walls of silica.

88.

A bloom is

a.	the clouding of water by sewage.
b.	an enormous mass of algae.
c.	a symbiotic relationship between algae and coral.
d.	none of the above

89.

Red algae lack flagella and

a.	nuclei.	c.	accessory pigments.
b.	centrioles.	d.	chlorophyll.

90.

The switching back and forth between a diploid and haploid stage in a life cycle is called

a.	alternation of generations.	c.	sexual reproduction.
b.	fusion of opposite mating types.	d.	asexual reproduction.

91.

In their free-living stage, individual cellular slime mold cells resemble

a.	soil amoebas.	c.	slugs.
b.	white fuzz.	d.	brightly colored mold.

92.

In oomycetes, sexual reproduction takes place in the

a.	migrating colony.	c.	antheridium and oogonium.
b.	sporangium.	d.	zoosporangium.

93.

What do fungi and arthropods have in common?

a.	Both groups are commonly coenocytic.
b.	The haploid state is dominant in both groups.
c.	Both groups are predominantly saprobic in nutrition.
d.	The protective coats of both groups are made of chitin.
e.	Both groups have cell walls.

94.

Consider two hyphae having equal dimensions: one from a cross-walled species and the other from a coenocytic species. Compared with the cross-walled species, the coenocytic species should have

a.	fewer nuclei.
b.	more pores.
c.	less chitin.
d.	less cytoplasm.

95.

A chemical secreted by female Bombyx moths helps the male of the species locate her, at which time sexual reproduction may occur. This chemical is most similar in function to which chemicals used by certain fungi?

a.	chitin
b.	exoenzymes
c.	pheromones
d.	aflatoxins

96.

Which of the following is characterized by the lack of an observed sexual phase in its members' life cycle?

a.	Ascomycota
b.	Basidiomycota
c.	Chytridiomycota
d.	Deuteromycota
e.	Zygomycota

97.

Lichens are symbiotic associations of fungi and

a.	mosses.
b.	cyanobacteria.
c.	green algae.
d.	either A or B
e.	either B or C

98.

An example of a single-celled fungus would be

a.	yeast.
b.	hypha.
c.	mycelia.
d.	eukaryote.
e.	chitin.

99.

What do fungi contribute to the survival of lichens?

a.	trap solar energy
b.	protect the partnership from air pollution
c.	provide the motility needed to relocate when conditions become unfavorable
d.	promote rapid growth of the overall structure
e.	absorb and retain water

100.

Only during a small part of their life cycles are most fungi

a.	diploid.
b.	haploid.
c.	1N.
d.	3 N.

101.

Each of the following is a basidiomycete EXCEPT

a.	shelf fungi.
b.	mushrooms.
c.	puffballs.
d.	truffle.

102.

Beneath the forest floor, carbon atoms can be moved from one tree to the next by

a.	orchids.
b.	fungal spores.
c.	mycorrhizae.
d.	lichens.

103.

Which of the following includes a plant embryo, a food supply, and a protective covering?

a.	pollen grain
b.	spore
c.	seed
d.	gametophyte

104.

Because bryophytes do not have vascular tissue, they

a.	do not conduct water.
b.	grow close to the ground.
c.	can draw up water only a few centimeters above the ground.
d.	all of the above

105.

Which of the following includes all the others?

a.	xylem
b.	vascular tissue
c.	phloem
d.	tracheids

106.

Which of the following structures has functions similar to that of roots?

a.	gemma
b.	rhizoid
c.	capsule
d.	stalk

107.

Which of the following is characteristic of alternation of generations in land plants?

a.	Haploid sporophytes make haploid spores.
b.	Gametophytes produce spores that develop into gametes.
c.	Sporophytes and gametophytes are typically similar in appearance.
d.	Meiosis in sporophytes produces haploid spores.
e.	Either the gametophyte or the sporophyte is unicellular.

108.

Xylem tissue is important to ferns because it

a.	can conduct water over long distances.
b.	allows water to diffuse into the roots.
c.	carries carbohydrates to all parts of the plant.
d.	allows ferns to reproduce in dry environments.

109.

Seeds commonly provide for each of the following except

a.	a choice of germination location.
b.	dispersal.
c.	dormancy.
d.	a nutrient supply for the embryo.
e.	resistance to drying out.

110.

Each of the following is a general characteristic of bryophytes except

a.	a cellulose cell wall.
b.	vascular tissue.
c.	being eukaryotic..
d.	being photosynthetic autotrophs.

111.

Suppose George Washington completely removed the bark from around the base of a cherry tree but was stopped by his father before cutting the tree down. The leaves retained their normal appearance for several weeks, but the tree eventually died. The tissue(s) that George left functional was (were) the

a.	phloem.
b.	xylem.
c.	cork cambium.
d.	cortex.
e.	companion and sieve-tube members.

112.

All of the following cell types are correctly matched with their functions except

a.	mesophyll-photosynthesis
b.	guard cell-regulation of transpiration
c.	sieve-tube member-sugar transport
d.	vessel element-water transport
e.	companion cell-formation of secondary xylem and phloem

Figure 23-2

113.

In Figure 23-2, the water pressure in the

a.	stoma is low.
b.	stoma is high.
c.	guard cells is high.
d.	guard cells is low.

114.

Minerals from the soil move into roots by

a.	diffusion.
b.	transpiration.
c.	active transport.
d.	root pressure.

115.

Vascular plant tissue includes all of the following cell types except

a.	vessel elements.
b.	sieve cells.
c.	tracheids.
d.	companion cells.
e.	cambium cells.

116.

Gas exchange, necessary for photosynthesis, can occur most easily in which leaf tissue?

a.	epidermis
b.	palisade mesophyll
c.	spongy mesophyll
d.	vascular tissue
e.	bundle sheath

117.

The movement of sugars in a plant can be explained by

a.	capillary action.
b.	transpiration pull.
c.	the pressure-flow hypothesis.
d.	root pressure.

118.

You are studying a plant from the arid(dry) southwestern United States. Which of the following adaptations is least likely to have evolved in response to water shortages?

a.	closing the stomata during the hottest time of the day
b.	development of large leaf surfaces to absorb water
c.	formation of a fibrous root system spread over a large area
d.	mycorrhizae associated with the root system
e.	a thick waxy cuticle on the epidermis

119.

What tissue makes up most of the wood of a tree?

a.	primary xylem
b.	secondary xylem
c.	secondary phloem
d.	mesophyll cells
e.	vascular cambium

120.

Which trait(s) is (are) shared by modern gymnosperms and angiosperms?

1.	pollen transported by wind	3.	microscopic gametophytes
2.	tracheids	4.	endosperm

a.	1
b.	1 and 3
c.	2 and 4
d.	1, 2, and 3

121.

How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?

a.	by nourishing the plants that make them
b.	by facilitating dispersal of seeds
c.	by attracting insects to the pollen inside
d.	by producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat
e.	by producing triploid cells via double fertilization

122.

Double fertilization means that angiosperms

a.	are the only plants that can produce dizygotic twins.
b.	have embryos that are triploid.
c.	have two sperm nuclei, both of which unite with nuclei of the female gametophyte.
d.	have two sperm nuclei, which simultaneously fertilize the single egg.
e.	produce twice as many embryos per fertilization event as do gymnosperms.

123.

Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?

a.	ovule
b.	ovary
c.	fruit
d.	style
e.	stamen

124.

The early growth stage of a plant embryo is called

a.	fertilization.
b.	dormancy.
c.	germination.
d.	pollination.

125.

For a graft to be successful, what part of the two plants must be firmly connected?

a.	bark.
b.	roots.
c.	vascular cambiums.
d.	stolons.

126.

Plants growing in a partially dark environment will grow toward light in a response called phototropism. Choose the incorrect statement regarding phototropism.

a.	It is caused by a chemical signal.
b.	One chemical involved is auxin.
c.	Auxin causes a growth increase on one side of the stem.
d.	Auxin causes a decrease in growth on the side of the stem exposed to light.
e.	Removing the apical meristem prevents phototropism.

127.

Which of the following hormones would be most useful in promoting the rooting of plant cuttings?

a.	phytochrome
b.	ethylene
c.	cytokinins
d.	gibberellins
e.	auxins

128.

If you were shipping green bananas to a supermarket thousands of miles away, which of the following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants' environment?

a.	CO₂
b.	cytokinins
c.	ethylene
d.	auxin
e.	gibberellic acids

129.

In nature, poinsettias bloom in early March. Research has shown that the flowering process is triggered three months before blooming occurs. In order to make poinsettias bloom in December, florists change the length of the light-dark cycle in September. Given the information and clues above, which of the following is a false statement about poinsettias?

a.	They are short-day plants.
b.	They will flower even if there are brief periods of dark during the daytime.
c.	They require a longer dark period than is available in September.
d.	The dark period can be interrupted without affecting flowering.

130.

In the meristem regions of plants, you would expect to find

a.	inactive cells.
b.	dividing cells.
c.	companion cells.
d.	reproductive cells.

131.

If the apical meristem of a mature plant is removed, the plant will most likely

a.	lose its ability to move phototropically.
b.	show a dramatic and rapid increase in height.
c.	develop apical dominance and begin to flower.
d.	lose apical dominance and grow lateral branches.

132.

Unlike a dicot, a monocot has

a.	four or five petals per flower.
b.	two seed leaves.
c.	taproots.
d.	parallel leaf veins.

133.

Only five percent of all animals have

a.	eukaryotic cells.
b.	diverse appearances.
c.	vertebral columns.
d.	cell membranes.

134.

Small organisms move oxygen and carbon dioxide through their skin by the process of

a.	diffusion.
b.	respiration.
c.	cephalization.
d.	muscular contractions.

135.

A blastula is a many-celled embryo that is

a.	single layered and cup shaped.
b.	single layered and spherical.
c.	two layered and egg shaped.
d.	two layered and spherical.

136.

Which of the three cell layers in animal embryos gives rise to the muscles and the circulatory, reproductive, and excretory systems?

a.	endoderm
b.	ectoderm
c.	mesoderm
d.	protostome

137.

Which of the following invertebrates are deuterostomes?

a.	worms
b.	arthropods
c.	mollusks
d.	echinoderms

138.

Animal X has no coelom and no cephalization. Animal X is either a

a.	mollusk or an arthropod.
b.	flatworm or a roundworm.
c.	mollusk or an echinoderm.
d.	sponge or a cnidarian.

139.

Animal Y has three germ layers, bilateral symmetry, and no coelom. Animal Y is a(an)

a.	sponge.
b.	arthropod.
c.	flatworm.
d.	mollusk.

Figure 29-1

140.

In Figure 29-1, the space labeled X is called a

a.	protostome.
b.	deuterostome.
c.	coelom.
d.	pseudocoelom.

141.

One way to distinguish a roundworm from an annelid is to

a.	count their germ layers.
b.	examine their body symmetry.
c.	compare the structure of their body cavities.
d.	determine whether they have cephalization.

142.

Which sequence correctly expresses the order in which major invertebrate features evolved?

a.	three germ layers → tissues → multicellularity → coelom
b.	coelom → tissues → three germ layers → multicellularity
c.	multicellularity → tissues → three germ layers → coelom
d.	multicellularity → three germ layers → coelom → tissues

143.

If an animal has a digestive tract, an open circulatory system, and an exoskeleton, it could be a(an)

a.	arthropod.
b.	echinoderm.
c.	cnidarian.
d.	roundworm.

144.

In insects, gas exchange takes place through a network of

a.	tracheal tubes.
b.	mantle cavities.
c.	book lungs.
d.	blood vessels.

145.

The giant squid is a large, very active invertebrate. What type of circulatory system do you think it has?

a.	open circulatory system
b.	closed circulatory system
c.	both an open and a closed circulatory system
d.	no circulatory system

146.

Which of the following best describes uric acid?

a.	more toxic than ammonia, leaves the body through excretory pores
b.	more toxic than ammonia, leaves the body through the rectum
c.	less toxic than ammonia, leaves the body through excretory pores
d.	less toxic than ammonia, leaves the body through the rectum

147.

Neurotransmitters are

a.	electrical impulses.
b.	found only in neurons with myelin sheaths.
c.	released at synapses.
d.	produced by muscles.

148.

Motor neurons transmit messages

a.	from the environment to the brain.
b.	from the environment to the spinal cord.
c.	from the spinal cord to the brain.
d.	from the central nervous system to a muscle or gland.

149.

The layer of photoreceptors and other neurons at the back of the eye is called the

a.	retina.	c.	iris.
b.	cochlea.	d.	optic nerve.

150.

The myelin sheath

a.	transmits impulses from one neuron to another.
b.	insulates the synapses.
c.	nourishes the neurons.
d.	insulates the axons.

151.

Refer to the illustration above. The gland in the diagram that is stimulated during emergency situations (causing the “flight-or-fight” response) is

a.	gland “A.”	c.	gland “C.”
b.	gland “B.”	d.	gland “D.”

152.

Refer to the illustration above. Growth hormone is produced by

a.	gland “A.”	c.	gland “C.”
b.	gland “B.”	d.	gland “D.”

153.

Refer to the illustration above. The gland that produces the hormone insulin is

a.	gland “A.”	c.	gland “C.”
b.	gland “B.”	d.	gland “D.”

154.

Refer to the illustration above. Testosterone is produced by

a.	gland “A.”	c.	gland “E.”
b.	gland “B.”	d.	All of the above

155.

Refer to the illustration above. Development and maintenance of female sexual characteristics are mainly stimulated by secretions of

a.	gland “A.”	c.	gland “C.”
b.	gland “B.”	d.	gland “D.”

156.

Refer to the illustration above. The pituitary gland is indicated in the diagram by

a.	gland “A.”	c.	gland “C.”
b.	gland “B.”	d.	gland “D.”

157.

The sodium-potassium pump

a.	rebuilds axon fibers.
b.	restores resting potential.
c.	creates a stimulus.
d.	is found only in the peripheral nervous system.

158.

synapse : two neurons ::

a.	neuron : two cell bodies	c.	synapse : cell body and axon
b.	cell body : two axons	d.	axon : cell body and synapse

159.

Sensory neurons transmit messages

a.	from the central nervous system to a muscle or gland.
b.	from the brain to the spinal cord.
c.	from the environment to the spinal cord or brain.
d.	within the brain.

160.

Refer to the illustration above. In the diagram, label “B” indicates a

a.	neurotransmitter molecule.	c.	receptor protein molecule.
b.	neuromodulator molecule.	d.	psychoactive drug molecule.

161.

Refer to the illustration above. If neurotransmitters could not be cleared out of a synapse after transmitting a message,

a.	a second neuron would continue to be stimulated for an indefinite period of time.
b.	the first neuron could not pass on its impulse.
c.	neuromodulators would be formed in the synapse.
d.	the neurotransmitter would mimic the effect of a psychoactive drug.

162.

In negative feedback, the

a.	last step stimulates the first step.	c.	last step inhibits the first step.
b.	first step inhibits the last step.	d.	All of the above

163.

Specialized hearing receptors are found in the

a.	cornea.	c.	cochlea.
b.	semicircular canals.	d.	cerebellum.

164.

In order for a hormone to work,

a.	it must reach its target cell.
b.	it must bind to a receptor protein.
c.	its message must cross a cell membrane.
d.	All of the above

165.

Sensory receptors essential for balance are located in the

a.	sclera.	c.	cochlea of the inner ear.
b.	eardrum.	d.	semicircular canals.

166.

Prostaglandins

a.	are transported throughout the body through the blood.
b.	are produced by the hypothalamus.
c.	act locally.
d.	are not considered hormones since they function very differently from them.

167.

Refer to the illustration above. Structure “B” in the diagram is the

a.	reticular formation.	c.	cerebellum.
b.	brain stem.	d.	cerebrum.

168.

Extensions that receive input at one end of a neuron’s body are called

a.	axons.	c.	synapses.
b.	cell bodies.	d.	dendrites.

169.

The sharpest images occur in a section of the retina that contains many

a.	blood vessels.	c.	cones.
b.	rods.	d.	glands.

170.

The smallest and most numerous blood vessels in the body are the

a.	venules.	c.	arteries.
b.	veins.	d.	capillaries.

171.

Normal blood pressure in millimeters of mercury is

a.	145/95.	c.	120/80.
b.	130/100.	d.	100/50.

172.

Where are the cells that make up the sinoatrial(SA) node, or pacemaker, located?

a.	right atrium
b.	left atrium
c.	right ventricle
d.	left ventricle

173.

Refer to the illustration above. The structure labeled “X” is the

a.	epiglottis.	c.	trachea.
b.	pharynx.	d.	larynx.

174.

A condition known as atherosclerosis results in

a.	increased circulation to the heart.
b.	larger muscles.
c.	a narrowing of the inner walls of blood vessels.
d.	a widening of inner walls of blood vessels.

175.

Which of the following blood cells contain hemoglobin?

a.	red blood cells
b.	white blood cells
c.	platelets
d.	all of the above

176.

The actual exchange of gases occurs at the site of the

a.	trachea.	c.	larynx.
b.	nasal passageway.	d.	alveoli.

177.

Infections generally result in an increase in the number of

a.	macrophages.	c.	platelets.
b.	erythrocytes.	d.	alveoli.

178.

Air is forced into the lungs by the contraction of the

a.	alveoli.
b.	bronchioles.
c.	diaphragm.
d.	heart.

179.

Vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called

a.	veins.	c.	arteries.
b.	capillaries.	d.	venules.

180.

If a blood vessel has valves, it probably

a.	is a vein.	c.	is a venule.
b.	is an artery.	d.	is part of the lymphatic system.

181.

Swollen lymph nodes might indicate

a.	an infection.
b.	high blood pressure.
c.	varicose veins.
d.	an irregular heartbeat.

182.

Fluid that leaks out of the blood vessels, gets cleaned by nodes and then retuns to the blood is called

a.	cardiac fluid.	c.	platelet fluid.
b.	rhapsody.	d.	lymph.

183.

An abnormality involving the platelets would probably affect the process of

a.	breathing.	c.	fighting bacterial infections.
b.	locomotion.	d.	blood clotting.

184.

The function of valves in the human circulatory system is to

a.	stimulate the heartbeat.
b.	accelerate the flow of blood.
c.	prevent the backward flow of blood.
d.	serve as a cushion to prevent friction.

185.

Bile

a.	breaks down globules of fat into tiny droplets.
b.	is stored in the liver.
c.	is produced by the gall bladder.
d.	All of the above

186.

The kidneys play a major role in maintaining

a.	the proper breathing rate.
b.	the proper glucose levels in the blood.
c.	homeostasis by removing urea, water, and other wastes from the blood.
d.	the concentration of digestive enzymes in the blood.

187.

Vitamins are organic compounds that

a.	help activate enzymes during chemical reactions.
b.	provide energy for metabolism.
c.	help form cell membranes.
d.	are not obtained from food.

188.

Most of the body’s energy needs should be supplied by dietary

a.	carbohydrates.	c.	vitamins.
b.	fats.	d.	proteins.

189.

Refer to the illustration above. Sperm are produced in

a.	“A.”	c.	“F.”
b.	“C.”	d.	“H.”

190.

Refer to the illustration above. The tube that carries urine during excretion and semen during ejaculation is labeled

a.	“A.”	c.	“B.”
b.	“H.”	d.	“D.”

191.

Refer to the illustration above. Eggs mature in the structure labeled

a.	“A”	c.	“D.”
b.	“F.”	d.	“E.”

192.

The wavelike contractions of muscle that move food through the digestive system are called

a.	peristalsis.	c.	mechanical digestion.
b.	voluntary contractions.	d.	involuntary digestion.

193.

Refer to the illustration above. What is the name of structure “5”?

a.	liver	c.	duodenum
b.	stomach	d.	ileum

194.

Refer to the illustration above. Most of the end products of digestion are absorbed into the circulatory system from which structure?

a.	structure “1”	c.	structure “3”
b.	structure “2”	d.	structure “4”

195.

In which of the following ways are mature human sperm and eggs similar?

a.	They both have the same number of chromosomes in their nuclei.
b.	They are both the same size.
c.	They are both equipped with a flagellum that provides motility.
d.	They are both produced after ovulation.

196.

The function of the digestive system is to

a.	chemically break down food.	c.	absorb nutrient materials.
b.	mechanically break apart food.	d.	All of the above

197.

The muscular structure in which the fetus develops is the

a.	vagina.	c.	cervix.
b.	fallopian tube.	d.	uterus.

198.

The trend of the Food Group Pyramid is that the majority of the food in your diet should be from

a.	the group(s) at the top.
b.	the group(s) at the bottom.
c.	the group(s) in the middle.
d.	all of the groups in the same proportion.

199.

Pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach begin the digestion of

a.	protein.	c.	fats.
b.	starch.	d.	carbohydrates.

200.

The villi of the small intestine allow for an increase in the rate of

a.	nutrient absorption.	c.	acid production.
b.	cellulose digestion.	d.	bile production.

201.

Which of the following provides a passage for both food and air?

a.	esophagus	c.	pharynx
b.	trachea	d.	duodenum

202.

During implantation,

a.	the follicle matures.
b.	the embryo attaches itself to the uterine wall.
c.	the sperm reaches the egg.
d.	menstruation occurs.

203.

The fallopian tubes

a.	secrete estrogen.
b.	produce eggs.
c.	extend from the ovaries to each side of the uterus, through which the egg travels.
d.	All of the above

204.

Urine leaves the body through the

a.	ureter.	c.	bladder.
b.	urethra.	d.	intestine.

205.

The first portion of the small intestine is the

a.	colon.	c.	duodenum.
b.	esophagus.	d.	rectum.

206.

Drinking alcohol, smoking, or using other drugs during pregnancy can cause

a.	birth defects in babies.	c.	mental retardation.
b.	small or sick babies.	d.	All of the above

207.

What is one of the roles of the pancreas in nutrition?

a.	absorb nutrients
b.	churn food
c.	dissolve food
d.	neutralize acids

208.

Chemical digestion occurs as a result of the action of

a.	hydrochloric acid.	c.	saliva.
b.	pepsin.	d.	All of the above

209.

Which of the following filtrates(things that have been filtered out) is not reabsorbed in significant quantities back into the bloodstream by the nephrons?

a.	glucose	c.	urea
b.	ions	d.	water

210.

What enzyme found in saliva breaks chemical bonds between the sugar monomers in starches?

a.	amylase
b.	chyme
c.	pepsin
d.	hydrochloric acid

211.

Urea is formed in the

a.	cells.	c.	kidneys.
b.	lungs.	d.	liver.

212.

Inorganic molecules that regulate vital functions in the body are called

a.	lipids.
b.	proteins.
c.	vitamins.
d.	minerals.

True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

213.

Taste buds, which are located on the surface of the tongue, are stimulated when a chemical dissolved in saliva binds to chemoreceptors in the taste buds.

214.

A goiter is the result of futile attempts by the thyroid gland to make thyroxine when the person is suffering from an iodine deficiency.

215.

The elongated extension of a neuron that sends impulses from the cell body is called an axon.

216.

In females, the ovaries produce the hormones estrogen and progesterone.

217.

Neurons communicate with other cells by sending neurotransmitters across dendrites.

218.

Photoreceptors that produce sharp images are called rods.

219.

Your ears help you maintain your balance.

220.

The hypothalamus is controlled by the pituitary gland.

221.

A spinal reflex is an involuntary response that requires the spinal cord but not the brain.

222.

Myelin sheaths slow down nerve impulses by forcing them to jump from node to node.

223.

In the human endocrine system, hormone levels are rarely regulated by negative feedback.

224.

In some neurons, a form of supporting cell called a myelin sheath wraps around the axon.

225.

The lower part of the uterus is a ring of strong muscles known as the cervix.

226.

The first stage of urine formation is called reabsorption.

227.

Testosterone is produced by the testes.

228.

Fertilization usually takes place in the fallopian tubes.

229.

The entry of an embryo into the uterine wall is called fertilization.

230.

The kidneys filter out toxins, urea, water, and salts from the blood.

231.

The skin can be considered an excretory organ.

232.

Almost all lipids are digested in the small intestine.

233.

In the placenta, fetal blood mixes directly with maternal blood.

234.

Proteins are the body’s main source of fuel.

235.

The fallopian tubes are the organs responsible for producing eggs.

236.

According to most authorities, a well-balanced diet has more fat than protein.

237.

In the first stage of digestion, proteins are broken down by pepsins in the stomach.

238.

Bile is a chemical secreted by the small intestine.

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

A student placed a disk of filter paper in each of the following solutions: Disinfectant 1, Disinfectant 2, Disinfectant 3, and Distilled Water. While the four disks were soaking in their respective solutions, she streaked a sterile nutrient agar dish with a culture of E. coli bacteria. Then she placed each disk carefully onto the nutrient agar dish, placed the lid on the dish, taped it shut, and incubated the dish at 37°C for several days. The drawings show how the nutrient agar dish looked on Day 1 and Day 4.

Figure 19-4

239.

Based on Figure 19-4, what is the student probably trying to test?

240.

Look at the dishes in Figure 19-4. Which disinfectant was the most effective at controlling the growth of E. coli? How do you know?

241.

How can the student measure the effectiveness of each disinfectant shown in Figure 19-4?

242.

What is the experimental control in the experiment shown in Figure 19-4?

Figure 18-1

243.

Which system of grouping, A or B, provides the more complete information about the three animals in Figure 18-1? What is the name of the diagram that shows this information?

244.

Which grouping, A or B in Figure 18-1, shows the more traditional method of classifying the three animals shown?

245.

Extra Credit: Which prokaryotes should be expected to be most strongly resistant to plasmolysis in hypertonic environments? Why?

A. extreme halophiles

B. extreme thermophiles

C. methanogens

D. cyanobacteria

E. nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in root nodules

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

Figure 20-3

246.

Does the organism shown in Figure 20-3 undergo sexual or asexual reproduction? How do you know (which letter/s)?

247.

Which of the labeled structures or stages shown in Figure 20-3 would be most likely to survive harsh environmental conditions?

248.

Which is a better analogy for the structure labeled F in Figure 20-1: many workers in individual offices or many workers in a large meeting room? Defend your answer.

249.

Extra Credit: Given the information that meiosis occurs in structure A, classify each of the other labeled structures or stages of the life cycle shown in Figure 20-3 (B-G) as either haploid or diploid.