Name: 
 

Practice Winter Final - Biology



True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
 

 1. 

During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule.
 

 2. 

Multiple DNA polymerases may become attached to more than one portion of a DNA molecule at once, speeding up the rate of replication.
 

 3. 

Franklin’s X-ray diffraction images suggested that the DNA molecule resembled a tightly coiled spring, a shape called a helix.
 

 4. 

When the concentration of solutes outside the cell is equal to the concentration of solutes inside the cell, the cell solution is isotonic relative to its environment.
 

 5. 

When mRNA leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm, it has a complete set of both introns and exons.
 

 6. 

Animal cells are prokaryotic.
 

 7. 

Membranes are selectively permeable if they allow only certain substances to diffuse across them.
 

 8. 

Before a DNA molecule can replicate itself, it must make itself more compact. This is accomplished by the double helix coiling up on itself.
 

 9. 

The only difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is that plant cells have chloroplasts.
 

 10. 

As a cell gets larger, its volume increases at a faster rate than its surface area.
 

 11. 

Plants carry out cellular respiration.
 

 12. 

The transport of specific particles through a membrane by carrier proteins is known as facilitated diffusion.
 

 13. 

In all living things, DNA replication must occur after cell division.
 

 14. 

When a tRNA anticodon binds to an mRNA codon, the amino acid detaches from the tRNA molecule and attaches to the end of a growing protein chain.
 

 15. 

When light hits a plant, all of the wavelengths are absorbed and used to make sugar.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 16. 

Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
a different number of electrons.
b.
a different number of molecules.
c.
a different number of neutrons.
d.
the same number of neutrons.
 

 17. 

All of the following are examples of lipids except
a.
saturated fats.
c.
testosterone.
b.
starch.
d.
earwax.
 
 
internet_bio_files/i0200000.jpg

Figure 15-1
 

 18. 

In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur shown in Figure 15-1 are
a.
examples of fossils.
c.
acquired traits.
b.
vestigial structures.
d.
examples of natural variation.
 

 19. 

The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed DNA template bases are
a.
replicases.
c.
helicases.
b.
DNA polymerases.
d.
nucleotidases.
 

 20. 

A substance with a pH of 6 is called
a.
an acid.
b.
a base.
c.
both an acid and a base.
d.
neither an acid nor a base.
 

 21. 

A sample from an ancient sailing ship was found to have 3 times more Nitrogen-14 than Carbon-14.  How many half-lifes has this gone through?
a.
one
c.
three
b.
two
d.
four
 

 22. 

Genes contain instructions for assembling
a.
purines.
b.
nucleosomes.
c.
proteins.
d.
pyrimidines.
 

 23. 

Which of the following illustrates the different types of chemical bonds in order of increasing attraction?
a.
ionic, covalent, hydrogen
b.
covalent, ionic, hydrogen
c.
hydrogen, covalent, ionic
d.
hydrogen, ionic, covalent
 

 24. 

The series of predictable changes that occurs in a community over time is called
a.
population growth.
c.
climax community.
b.
ecological succession.
d.
climate change.
 

 25. 

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?
a.
glycolysis fermentation   Krebs cycle
b.
Krebs cycle   electron transport   glycolysis
c.
glycolysis   Krebs cycle   electron transport
d.
Krebs cycle   glycolysis electron transport
 
 

      internet_bio_files/i0290000.jpg
 

 26. 

Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are found in
a.
structure “1.”
c.
structure “3.”
b.
structure “2.”
d.
structure “5.”
 

 27. 

Refer to the illustration above. Structure “1” is
a.
the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
a mitochondria.
b.
a Golgi apparatus.
d.
the nucleus.
 

 28. 

Fossilized evidence of Earth’s first forms of life would consist of
a.
vertebrates from the Precambrian.
b.
invertebrates from the Precambrian.
c.
eukaryotes from the Precambrian.
d.
prokaryotes from the Precambrian.
 

 29. 

While energy absorbed by one type of chlorophyll molecule is used to form molecules of ATP, electrons from a second kind of chlorophyll molecule are used
a.
in forming molecules of NADPH.
b.
to migrate to another proton pump.
c.
in the second kind of thylakoid.
d.
as a fuel for forming another chlorophyll molecule.
 

 30. 

Lamarck’s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of
a.
continual increases in population size.
b.
the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures.
c.
an unchanging local environment.
d.
the natural variations already present within the population of organisms.
 

 31. 

Which of the following types of RNA carries instructions for making proteins?
a.
mRNA
c.
tRNA
b.
rRNA
d.
All of the above
 

 32. 

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions?
a.
oxygen gas
b.
ATP
c.
NADPH
d.
all of these
 

 33. 

The noncoding portions of DNA that are separated from the portions of DNA actually used during transcription are called
a.
mutons.
c.
introns.
b.
exons.
d.
exposons.
 

 34. 

Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and
a.
a different number of electrons.
c.
a different number of neutrons.
b.
a different number of molecules.
d.
the same number of neutrons.
 

 35. 

The basic divisions of the geologic time scale, from larger to smaller are
a.
eras and periods.
b.
periods and eras.
c.
relative and absolute dates.
d.
billions of years and millions of years.
 

 36. 

What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons?
a.
neutral
b.
positive
c.
negative
d.
possibly positive or negative
 

 37. 

Which of the following include all the others?
a.
DNA molecules
b.
histones
c.
chromosomes
d.
nucleosomes
 

 38. 

Energy is released from ATP when
a.
a phosphate group is added.
b.
adenine bonds to ribose.
c.
ATP is exposed to sunlight.
d.
a phosphate is removed.
 

 39. 

The scientists credited with establishing the structure of DNA are
a.
Avery and Chargaff.
c.
Mendel and Griffith.
b.
Hershey and Chase.
d.
Watson and Crick.
 

 40. 

Which of the following organisms does NOT require sunlight to live?
a.
chemosynthetic bacteria
c.
trees
b.
algae
d.
photosynthetic bacteria
 

 41. 

In each generation, the wings of experimental fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first generation emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that evolution is based on
a.
inheritance of natural variations.
b.
inheritance of acquired characteristics.
c.
natural selection.
d.
survival of the fittest.
 

 42. 

Which of the following is not part of a molecule of DNA?
a.
deoxyribose
c.
phosphate
b.
base
d.
ribose
 

 43. 

When salt is dissolved in water, water is the
a.
reactant.
c.
solute.
b.
solution.
d.
solvent.
 

 44. 

How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
8
d.
16
 
 
.
 

 45. 

An organism that occupies the same niche as algae, but lives in a temperate forest is
a.
a tiger beetle
c.
a broadleaf deciduous tree
b.
a deer
d.
a black bear
 

 46. 

The algae at the beginning of the food chain in a freshwater ecosystem are
a.
consumers.
c.
producers.
b.
decomposers.
d.
heterotrophs.
 

 47. 

What type of electron is available to form bonds?
a.
valence
b.
nucleus
c.
ionic
d.
covalent
 

 48. 

If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is
a.
12.
b.
6.
c.
24.
d.
3.
 

 49. 

Sedimentary rock is formed from
a.
the soft parts of organisms.
b.
the hard parts of organisms.
c.
small particles of sand, silt, and clay.
d.
wood, shell, and bone.
 

 50. 

Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to
a.
chloroplasts.
b.
cytoplasm.
c.
mitochondria.
d.
nucleus.
 

 51. 

ATTG : TAAC ::
a.
AAAT : TTTG
c.
GTCC : CAGG
b.
TCGG : AGAT
d.
CGAA : TGCG
 

 52. 

A particularly active cell might contain large numbers of
a.
chromosomes.
c.
mitochondria.
b.
vacuoles.
d.
walls.
 

 53. 

When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is
a.
natural selection.
c.
artificial variation.
b.
artificial selection.
d.
survival of the fittest.
 

 54. 

What situation might develop in a population having some plants whose flowers open at midday and other plants whose flowers open late in the day?
a.
behavioral isolation
c.
temporal isolation
b.
geographic isolation
d.
genetic drift
 
 
internet_bio_files/i0600000.jpg

Figure 3-1
 

 55. 

The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3-1 are
a.
consumers.
b.
decomposers.
c.
producers.
d.
heterotrophs.
 

 56. 

Which of the following is not true about DNA replication?
a.
It must occur before a cell can divide.
b.
Two complementary strands are duplicated.
c.
The double strand unwinds while it is being duplicated.
d.
The process is catalyzed by enzymes called DNA mutagens.
 

 57. 

Identify the reactant(s) in the chemical reaction, CO2 + H2O H2CO3.
a.
CO2, H2O, and H2CO3
b.
CO2 and H2O
c.
H2CO3
d.
CO2
 

 58. 

A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)
a.
nucleus.
c.
element.
b.
cell.
d.
molecule.
 

 59. 

Several species of warblers can live in the same spruce tree ONLY because they
a.
have different habitats within the tree.
b.
eat different foods within the tree.
c.
occupy different niches within the tree.
d.
can find different temperatures within the tree.
 

 60. 

The number of different species in the biosphere is called
a.
biodiversity.
c.
genetic diversity.
b.
ecosystem diversity.
d.
species diversity.
 

 61. 

Chargaff’s rules, or the base-pairing rules, state that in DNA
a.
the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine.
b.
the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine.
c.
the amount of guanine equals the amount of thymine.
d.
Both a and b
 
 
mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC

Genetic Code:

internet_bio_files/i0680000.jpg
 

 62. 

Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand in the diagram was made?
a.
CUCAAGUGCUUC
c.
GAGTTCACGAAG
b.
GAGUUCACGAAG
d.
AGACCTGTAGGA
 

 63. 

Refer to the illustration above. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by the piece of mRNA shown in the diagram?
a.
Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
c.
Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
b.
Val—Asp—Pro—His
d.
Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
 

 64. 

Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA in the diagram are
a.
GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.
c.
CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.
b.
GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.
d.
CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.
 

 65. 

Nucleic acids include
a.
chlorophyll and retinal.
c.
lipids and sugars.
b.
DNA and RNA.
d.
glucose and glycogen.
 

 66. 

The total amount of living tissue within a given trophic level is called the
a.
organic mass.
b.
trophic mass.
c.
energy mass.
d.
biomass.
 

 67. 

A nucleotide consists of
a.
a sugar, a protein, and adenine.
b.
a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.
c.
a sugar, a phosphate group, and a base.
d.
a starch, a phosphate group, and a base.
 

 68. 

If a mutation introduces a new skin color in a lizard population, which factor might determine whether the frequency of the new allele will increase?
a.
how many other alleles are present
b.
whether the mutation makes some lizards more fit for their environment than other lizards
c.
how many phenotypes the population has
d.
whether the mutation was caused by nature or by human intervention
 

 69. 

Gametes are produced by the process of
a.
mitosis.
b.
meiosis.
c.
crossing-over.
d.
replication.
 

 70. 

Water lilies do not grow in desert sand because water availability to these plants in a desert is
a.
a limiting factor.
c.
a competition factor.
b.
the carrying capacity.
d.
parasitism.
 

 71. 

Specialized cells regulate the expression of genes because they
a.
do not want the genes to become worn out.
b.
cannot control translation.
c.
do not carry the complete genetic code in their nuclei.
d.
do not need the proteins that are specified by certain genes.
 

 72. 

During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be
a.
TTGCATG.
c.
CCTAGCT.
b.
AAGTATC.
d.
GGATCGA.
 

 73. 

If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas (RRYy), how many different phenotypes are their offspring expected to show?
a.
2
b.
4
c.
8
d.
16
 

 74. 

Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a
a.
mutagen.
c.
anticodon.
b.
codon.
d.
exon.
 

 75. 

What proportion of all species that have ever lived has become extinct?
a.
less than 1 percent
c.
more than 99 percent
b.
approximately one-half
d.
100 percent
 

 76. 

Which of the following is not found in DNA?
a.
adenine
c.
uracil
b.
cytosine
d.
None of the above
 

 77. 

The dark reactions of photosynthesis
a.
require ATP and NADPH.
b.
can occur in both light and dark conditions.
c.
generate glucose.
d.
All of the above
 

 78. 

The attachment of nucleotides to form a complementary strand of DNA
a.
is catalyzed (done) by DNA polymerase.
b.
is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA.
c.
prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA.
d.
is the responsibility of the complementary DNA mutagens.
 

 79. 

The combined genetic information of all members of a particular population is the population’s
a.
relative frequency.
c.
genotype.
b.
phenotype.
d.
gene pool.
 

 80. 

When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a.
not predictable.
c.
directional selection.
b.
disruptive selection.
d.
stabilizing selection.
 

 81. 

How would you date a sample of rock that you suspect as being one of the earliest on Earth?
a.
Use a radioactive isotope with a short half-life.
b.
Use a radioactive isotope with a long half-life.
c.
Use an index fossil.
d.
Use a microfossil.
 

 82. 

Hox genes determine an animal’s
a.
basic body plan.
b.
size.
c.
skin color.
d.
eye color.
 

 83. 

In which way are green plants in a sunny mountain meadow and sulfur bacteria in a deep-sea volcanic vent alike?
a.
They both use photosynthesis to make their own food.
b.
They both produce carbohydrates and oxygen.
c.
They both use chemosynthesis to produce their own food.
d.
They both produce carbon and hydrogen.
 

 84. 

RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
a.
is sometimes single-stranded.
b.
contains a different sugar molecule.
c.
contains the nitrogen base uracil.
d.
All of the above
 

 85. 

The Calvin cycle takes place in the
a.
stroma.
b.
photosystems.
c.
thylakoid membranes.
d.
chlorophyll molecules.
 

 86. 

Water molecules are polar, with the
a.
oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative.
b.
oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive.
c.
oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative.
d.
oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive.
 

 87. 

What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a.
adhesion energy
b.
activation energy
c.
cohesion energy
d.
chemical energy
 

 88. 

Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
a.
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b.
interphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c.
interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
d.
prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase, cytokinesis
 

 89. 

Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true?
a.
Enzymes work best at a specified pH.
b.
All enzymes work inside cells.
c.
Enzymes are proteins.
d.
Enzymes are organic catalysts.
 

 90. 

Transcription is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)
a.
RNA molecule.
c.
uracil molecule.
b.
DNA molecule.
d.
polymerase.
 

 91. 

An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)
a.
consumer
c.
autotroph.
b.
chemotroph.
d.
producer.
 

 92. 

The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called
a.
temporal isolation.
c.
behavioral isolation.
b.
geographic isolation.
d.
genetic equilibrium.
 

 93. 

A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called a
a.
nonpolar molecule.
c.
charged molecule.
b.
polar molecule.
d.
bipolar molecule.
 

 94. 

When individuals at only one end of a bell curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is
a.
directional selection.
c.
disruptive selection.
b.
stabilizing selection.
d.
genetic drift.
 

 95. 

Which of the following is NOT recycled in the biosphere?
a.
water
b.
nitrogen
c.
carbon
d.
energy
 

 96. 

In order for protein synthesis to occur, mRNA must migrate to the
a.
ribosomes.
c.
RNA polymerase.
b.
lac operon.
d.
heterochromatin.
 

 97. 

The starting molecule for glycolysis is
a.
ADP.
b.
pyruvic acid.
c.
citric acid.
d.
glucose.
 

 98. 

The presence of a repressor molecule prevents the action of what enzyme?
a.
DNA polymerase
c.
RNA polymerase
b.
lactase
d.
permease
 

 99. 

Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT
a.
plant life.
c.
rainfall.
b.
soil type.
d.
temperature.
 

 100. 

Which event occurs during interphase?
a.
The cell grows.
b.
Centrioles appear.
c.
Spindle fibers begin to form.
d.
Centromeres divide.
 

 101. 

Green plants are
a.
producers.
b.
consumers.
c.
herbivores.
d.
omnivores.
 

 102. 

Which of the following is released during cellular respiration?
a.
oxygen
b.
air
c.
energy
d.
lactic acid
 

 103. 

During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations
a.
in England.
c.
on the Galápagos Islands.
b.
in North America.
d.
in Asia.
 

 104. 

Miller and Urey’s experiments attempted to demonstrate
a.
how Earth first formed.
b.
whether DNA or RNA evolved first.
c.
whether organic molecules could have formed before life was present.
d.
how the deepest part of Earth formed.
 

 105. 

Why did oceans not exist on Earth nearly 4 billion years ago?
a.
No water molecules were present.
b.
Water remained a gas because Earth was very hot.
c.
Water existed as ice because Earth was very cold.
d.
There was no oxygen gas in the atmosphere.
 

 106. 

One of the conditions required to maintain (Hardy-Weinberg) genetic equilibrium is
a.
natural selection.
b.
mutations.
c.
nonrandom mating.
d.
no movement into or out of the population.
 

 107. 

Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a.
used in reproduction.
b.
stored as body tissue.
c.
stored as fat.
d.
eliminated as heat.
 

 108. 

When glycolysis occurs,
a.
a molecule of glucose is split.
b.
two molecules of pyruvate are made.
c.
some ATP is produced.
d.
All of the above
 

 109. 

The Mesozoic Era occurred
a.
before Precambrian Time.
c.
after the Paleozoic Era.
b.
during Precambrian Time.
d.
after the Cenozoic Era.
 

 110. 

What is the process by which bacteria convert nitrogen gas in the air to ammonia?
a.
nitrogen fixation
b.
excretion
c.
decomposition
d.
denitrification
 

 111. 

Genetic drift tends to occur in populations that
a.
are very large.
b.
are small.
c.
are formed from new species.
d.
have unchanging allele frequencies.
 

 112. 

Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by
a.
humans.
c.
bacteria.
b.
plants.
d.
ammonia.
 

 113. 

The portions of DNA molecules that actually code for the production of proteins are called
a.
mutons.
c.
introns.
b.
exons.
d.
exposons.
 

 114. 

Where do the light-dependent reactions take place?
a.
in the stroma
b.
outside the chloroplasts
c.
in the thylakoid membranes
d.
only in chlorophyll molecules
 

 115. 

When muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen,
a.
a large amount of ATP is formed.
c.
lactic acid is produced.
b.
NADH molecules split.
d.
glycolysis ceases.
 

 116. 

Which of these processes takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell?
a.
glycolysis
b.
electron transport
c.
Krebs cycle
d.
all of the above
 

 117. 

Temperatures on Earth remain within a suitable range for life as we know it because of the
a.
unequal heating of Earth’s surface.
b.
loss of heat to space.
c.
radiation of sunlight back into the atmosphere.
d.
greenhouse effect.
 

 118. 

What is produced during transcription?
a.
RNA molecules
b.
DNA molecules
c.
RNA polymerase
d.
proteins
 

 119. 

A repressor protein
a.
prevents DNA synthesis.
b.
blocks movement of RNA polymerase.
c.
attaches to ribosomes during translation.
d.
destroys amino acids before protein synthesis occurs.
 

 120. 

Each of the following is a type of RNA except
a.
carrier RNA.
c.
ribosomal RNA.
b.
messenger RNA.
d.
transfer RNA.
 

 121. 

Only eukaryotic cells have
a.
DNA.
c.
ribosomes.
b.
membrane-bound organelles.
d.
cytoplasm.
 

 122. 

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?
a.
prophase
b.
telophase
c.
metaphase
d.
anaphase
 

 123. 

The length of time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is its
a.
half-life.
c.
radioactive date.
b.
relative date.
d.
period.
 

 124. 

Diffusion takes place
a.
only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b.
from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
c.
only in liquids.
d.
from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
 

 125. 

Which of the following terms describes a substance formed by the combination of two or more elements in definite proportions?
a.
compound
b.
isotope
c.
nucleus
d.
enzyme
 

 126. 

What are the products of the Calvin cycle?
a.
oxygen gas
b.
ATP
c.
high-energy sugars
d.
light
 

 127. 

In a population of finches in which one group of birds has a short, parrotlike beak and another group has a long, narrow beak, what process has probably occurred?
a.
directional selection
c.
stabilizing selection
b.
disruptive selection
d.
genetic drift
 

 128. 

Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
a.
Communities make up species, which make up populations.
b.
Populations make up species, which make up communities.
c.
Species make up communities, which make up populations.
d.
Species make up populations, which make up communities.
 

 129. 

A man and a woman who are both heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation (Aa) produce an albino offspring (aa). Which of Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?
a.
dominance only
b.
independent assortment only
c.
dominance and segregation
d.
segregation only
 

 130. 

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. If cells are removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing until they have filled the empty space. What does this experiment show?
a.
When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing.
b.
The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.
c.
Cell division can be regulated by factors outside the cell.
d.
all of the above
 

 131. 

Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of
a.
2 ATP molecules.
b.
4 ATP molecules.
c.
18 ATP molecules.
d.
36 ATP molecules.
 

 132. 

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
a.
size.
b.
spindle fibers.
c.
growth rate.
d.
surface area.
 
 
Assume that each of the atoms below requires eight electrons to fill its outer energy level.

      internet_bio_files/i1400000.jpg
 

 133. 

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the atoms is chemically stable?
a.
Atom “A”
c.
Atom “C”
b.
Atom “B”
d.
None of the above
 

 134. 

Refer to the illustration above. If Atom “C” interacted with Atom “B” to form an ionic bond, Atom “C” would
a.
lose 6 electrons.
c.
gain 5 electrons.
b.
gain 2 electrons.
d.
move 4 electrons into the nucleus.
 

 135. 

One difference between cell division in plant cells and in animal cells is that plant cells have
a.
spindle fibers.
b.
centromeres.
c.
a cell plate.
d.
chromatin.
 

 136. 

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a.
DNA
c.
wax
b.
insulin
d.
sucrose
 

 137. 

The base-pairing rules state that the following are base pairs in DNA:
a.
adenine—thymine; uracil—cytosine.
b.
adenine—thymine; guanine—cytosine.
c.
adenine—guanine; thymine—cytosine.
d.
uracil—thymine; guanine—cytosine.
 

 138. 

What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological community?
a.
energy path
c.
trophic level
b.
food web
d.
food pyramid
 

 139. 

Products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are required by the dark reactions are
a.
oxygen and ATP.
c.
ATP and NADPH.
b.
water and oxygen.
d.
oxygen and NADPH.
 

 140. 

Which of the following is NOT a way in which natural selection affects the distribution of phenotypes?
a.
directional selection
c.
disruptive selection
b.
stabilizing selection
d.
chance events
 

 141. 

The symbiotic relationship between a flower and the insect that feeds on its nectar is an example of
a.
mutualism because the flower provides the insect with food, and the insect pollinates the flower.
b.
parasitism because the insect lives off the nectar from the flower.
c.
commensalism because the insect doesn’t harm the flower and the flower doesn’t benefit from the relationship.
d.
predation because the insect feeds on the flower.
 

 142. 

If a nutrient is in such short supply in an ecosystem that it affects an animal’s growth, the
a.
animal becomes a decomposer.
b.
substance is a limiting nutrient.
c.
nutrient leaves the food chain.
d.
ecosystem will not survive.
 

 143. 

A substance that accelerates the rate of a chemical reaction is called a(an)
a.
catalyst.
b.
lipid.
c.
molecule.
d.
element.
 

 144. 

Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the
a.
products of the reaction.
b.
speed of the reaction.
c.
temperature of the reaction.
d.
pH of the reaction.
 

 145. 

The two main sources of genetic variation are
a.
genotypes and phenotypes.
b.
gene shuffling and mutations.
c.
single-gene traits and polygenic traits.
d.
directional selection and disruptive selection.
 

 146. 

A map of eastern North America, showing the pH of rainfall in the various states, indicates that the pH of rain in New York State varies from 4.22 to 4.40. According to these figures, the most acidic rainfall in New York State has a pH of
a.
4.22.
b.
4.30.
c.
4.35.
d.
4.40.
 

 147. 

The repeated movement of water between Earth’s surface and the atmosphere is called
a.
the water cycle.
b.
the condensation cycle.
c.
precipitation.
d.
evaporation.
 

 148. 

Most fossils form in
a.
rusty water.
c.
sedimentary rock.
b.
volcanic rock.
d.
the sap of ancient trees.
 

 149. 

The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a.
similarities of the birds’ embryos.
b.
birds’ different-shaped beaks.
c.
length of the birds’ necks.
d.
number of eggs in each bird’s nest.
 

 150. 

A mutation that involves a single nucleotide is called a(an)
a.
chromosomal mutation.
b.
inversion.
c.
point mutation.
d.
translocation.
 

 151. 

The endosymbiont theory proposes that eukaryotic cells arose from
a.
individual prokaryotic cells.
b.
multicellular prokaryotes.
c.
communities formed by prokaryotes.
d.
communities formed by eukaryotes.
 

 152. 

On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed
a.
completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
b.
species exactly like those found in South America.
c.
somewhat similar species, with traits that suited their particular environments.
d.
species completely unrelated to those found in South America.
 

 153. 

What type of electrons is available to form bonds?
a.
valence
c.
ionic
b.
nucleus
d.
covalent
 

 154. 

The part of the molecule for which deoxyribonucleic acid is named is the
a.
phosphate group.
b.
sugar.
c.
nitrogen base.
d.
None of the above; DNA is not named after part of the molecule.
 

 155. 

Which statement is in agreement with Darwin’s theory of evolution?
a.
More offspring are produced than can possibly survive.
b.
The organisms that are the fittest are always largest and strongest.
c.
The number of offspring is not related to fitness.
d.
Acquired characteristics that are inherited are the cause of evolution.
 

 156. 

Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by
a.
humans.
b.
plants.
c.
bacteria.
d.
consumers.
 

 157. 

The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
a.
respiration.
c.
fermentation.
b.
oxidation.
d.
All of the above
 

 158. 

A covalent bond is formed as the result of
a.
transferring electrons.
c.
transferring protons.
b.
sharing an electron pair.
d.
sharing a proton pair.
 

 159. 

To compare the relative ages of fossils, scientists sometimes use an easily recognized species called a(an)
a.
carbon fossil.
c.
index fossil.
b.
radioactive fossil.
d.
sedimentary fossil.
 

 160. 

A pattern in which species experience long, stable periods interrupted by brief periods of rapid evolutionary change is called
a.
convergent evolution.
c.
adaptive radiation.
b.
coevolution.
d.
punctuated equilibrium.
 

 161. 

Suspended in the fluid stroma of chloroplasts are
a.
organelles called eukaryotes.
b.
numerous mitochondrial membranes.
c.
stacks of thylakoids.
d.
all of the above.
 

 162. 

When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?
a.
acquired characteristics
b.
reproductive isolation
c.
survival of the fittest
d.
descent with modification
 

 163. 

Which means of particle transport requires input of energy from the cell?
a.
diffusion
b.
osmosis
c.
facilitated diffusion
d.
active transport
 

 164. 

The earliest hominid that belonged to the same genus as modern humans was probably
a.
Homo habilis.
c.
Homo afarensis.
b.
Homo neanderthalensis.
d.
Homo ergaster.
 

 165. 

Early in Earth’s history, while the planet was in a melted state, the most dense elements formed Earth’s
a.
core.
c.
crust.
b.
seas.
d.
atmosphere.
 

 166. 

One important organelle that helps maintain homeostasis by moving supplies from one part of the cell to the other is the
a.
endoplasmic reticulum.
c.
Golgi apparatus.
b.
mitochondria.
d.
cytoplasm.
 
 
internet_bio_files/i1750000.jpg

Figure 11-3
 

 167. 

What is shown in Figure 11-3?
a.
independent assortment
b.
anaphase I of meiosis
c.
crossing-over
d.
replication
 

 168. 

Organisms that break down and feed on wastes and dead organisms are called
a.
decomposers.
c.
autotrophs.
b.
omnivores.
d.
producers.
 

 169. 

Which of the following is NOT recycled in the biosphere?
a.
water
c.
carbon
b.
nitrogen
d.
energy
 

 170. 

All the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food
a.
interaction.
b.
chain.
c.
network.
d.
web.
 

 171. 

The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move materials from one side to the other. What are these channels and pumps made of?
a.
carbohydrates
b.
lipids
c.
bilipids
d.
proteins
 

 172. 

Purines and pyrimidines are
a.
bases found in amino acids.
b.
able to replace phosphate groups from defective DNA.
c.
names of specific types of DNA molecules.
d.
bases found in nucleotides.
 

 173. 

Earth’s most recent era is the
a.
Paleozoic.
c.
Cenozoic.
b.
Mesozoic.
d.
Precambrian.
 

 174. 

Gametes have
a.
homologous chromosomes.
b.
twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells.
c.
two sets of chromosomes.
d.
one allele for each gene.
 

 175. 

The starting molecule for the Krebs cycle is
a.
glucose.
b.
NADH.
c.
pyruvic acid.
d.
coenzyme A.
 

 176. 

photosynthesis : light ::
a.
light bulb : glass
c.
automobile : gasoline
b.
trunk : clothing
d.
country : nation
 

 177. 

Bipedal locomotion consists of
a.
swinging from branch to branch.
b.
using the tail to grasp branches during walking.
c.
moving the big toe against the other digits.
d.
walking on two feet.
 

 178. 

A snake that eats a frog that has eaten an insect that fed on a plant is a
a.
first-level producer.
b.
first-level consumer.
c.
second-level producer.
d.
third-level consumer.
 

Short Answer
 

 179. 

Define homologous chromosomes.
 

Essay
 

 180. 

Compare protons, electrons, and neutrons with respect to location within atoms, electric charge, and mass.
 

 181. 

You wish to determine whether a tall pea plant is homozygous or heterozygous for tallness. What cross should you perform to arrive at your answer? Explain your choice of cross.
 

 182. 

Compare and contrast adhesion and cohesion, using capillary action as an example.
 

 183. 

How does a food web differ from a food chain?
 

Other
 
 
USING SCIENCE SKILLS

internet_bio_files/i1960000.jpg

Figure 16-2
 

 184. 

According to Figure 16-2, there is a brief period during which frog mating nearly stops. When does this occur?
 

 185. 

Peeper frogs and leopard frogs do not interbreed even when they share a habitat. Use the information in Figure 16-2 to determine what mechanism probably keeps the two species reproductively isolated.
 

 186. 

Based on Figure 16-2, what mechanism appears to keep bullfrogs reproductively isolated? Would that mechanism necessarily be the only isolating mechanism? Explain.
 
 
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
A student prepared two beakers with identical sprigs of a water plant as shown below. She placed one beaker in the shade and the other beaker beside a fluorescent lamp. She then systematically changed the distance of the beaker from the lamp. She counted the bubbles given off by each sprig of the water plant. Shown here is the graph of the data for the beaker she placed in the light.

internet_bio_files/i2000000.jpg   internet_bio_files/i2000001.jpg

Figure 8-4
 

 187. 

What was the student's manipulated variable?
 

 188. 

List 3 controlled variables in this experiment.
 

 189. 

What was the student's responding variable?
 

 190. 

Predicting If the lamp were placed closer than 5 centimeters from the water plant, would the plant give off many more bubbles? Why or why not?
 

 191. 

Which beaker is the student's experimental control?
 

 192. 

Look at the graph in Figure 8-4. What conclusion can the student draw from this data?
 
 
USING SCIENCE SKILLS

internet_bio_files/i2070000.jpg

Figure 2-3
 

 193. 

Applying Concepts According to Figure 2-3, which enzyme would you expect to find in a bacterium growing in a hot spring?
 

 194. 

Using Tables and Graphs According to Figure 2-3, at what temperature do the two enzymes have the same amount of activity?
 

 195. 

Using Tables and Graphs According to Figure 2-3, which enzyme has an optimum temperature of 40°C?
 

 196. 

What would happen to an animal cell with an internal salt concentration of 0.8% if it were placed in a salt solution of each of the following concentrations?
a. 0.02%
b. 0.8%
c. 20.0%
 
 
USING SCIENCE SKILLS

internet_bio_files/i2120000.jpg

internet_bio_files/i2120001.jpg

Figure 3-5
 

 197. 

Predicting How might a large omnivore change the flow of energy in Figure 3-5, Diagram II?
 

 198. 

Inferring If a limiting nutrient is supplied to the producer in Figure 3-5, Diagram II, what effect could it have on the birds?
 

 199. 

Applying Concepts Describe how chemosynthesis could contribute to the energy represented by Figure 3-5, Diagram I.
 
 
USING SCIENCE SKILLS

internet_bio_files/i2160000.jpg

Figure 3-4
 

 200. 

Comparing and Contrasting In Figure 3-4, compare the amount of energy available to the wolf if it eats a rabbit with the amount of energy available to the wolf if it eats a shrew.
 



 
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